I've just posted a question re: the subject on the Legal Issues board.
viewtopic.php?f=2&t=15963
I'm x-posting it here as it's quite possible someone here (and not there) might also know the answer. Any thoughts over on that^ topic please. Thanks!
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'Share of freehold building, with individual flats owned on identical very long leaseholds:
In general terms, is the following permitted, or permitted unless the lease specifically precludes it?
Share of freeholder A owns flat 1, and lets it on an AST to tenant X
Share of freeholder A also owns flat 2, and later also lets it tenant X, who then sub-lets it to 'sub-tenant' Z
Of course I haven't seen the Tenancy Agreement re: flat 2^ (though the owner confirms both are now let to tenant X), nor any agreement re the sublet. Is there anything that stands out as potentially 'not allowed'? I ask as it seems a bit contrary that a tenant can rent and then sub-let the whole flat at will.
I'm concerned the above sub-letting could prejudice the building insurance; it also brings an unusual sense of random people/anonymity to the quite small building.
[I'll x-post this with a link to the Property Investors board]
Thx!
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Sub-letting in breach of lease? [x-post]
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