Looking at my HYP sells
Posted: November 27th, 2017, 4:54 pm
I mentioned in the "Tesco - don't laugh but..." thread, that I'm making a start on studying what happened to my HYP voluntary sells over the years, and comparing that history with what actually happened with the capital released.
Finding a rule for what I bought next is not without peril, but relatively easy. I know what was bought after the sell date, and will "buy" the next one or two shares which are needed to make up the given amount of capital. Even that isn't without a question mark as regards charges if an odd amount is left over, such that the trade would be uneconomic.
However, the bigger concern is: what happens to the dividend stream accrued? I need a simple rule which would make the exercise of some use and which is a close as it can be to avoiding hindsight bias. There seem to be three approaches:
a) just accrue the dividends as cash - for ever
b) by more shares in the same investment when the amount is economic
c) by shares in a different company.
a) seems unrealistic in that I've always bought shares when cash is accumulated
b) I will rule out unless at or near the time the cash accrued becomes economic, the existing company was subject to a re-investment in my real life HYP
c) seems acceptable as a solution if b) does not work. The danger is that it would become messy to operate with small numbers of several company shares, creating more work in the process.
There's also a bigger question looming: should I do this as an exercise on the basis of one holding sold at a time, or as a portfolio which includes all those shares sold? In the first selling case which occurs (RTO), I could, for example, simply run the clock forward for the holding of Rentokil, or alternatively for RTO plus RBS plus DSGI etc.
It does not seem so easy - which is why I've put it off for so long!
Any ideas from those of you who have done this previously?
Arb.
Finding a rule for what I bought next is not without peril, but relatively easy. I know what was bought after the sell date, and will "buy" the next one or two shares which are needed to make up the given amount of capital. Even that isn't without a question mark as regards charges if an odd amount is left over, such that the trade would be uneconomic.
However, the bigger concern is: what happens to the dividend stream accrued? I need a simple rule which would make the exercise of some use and which is a close as it can be to avoiding hindsight bias. There seem to be three approaches:
a) just accrue the dividends as cash - for ever
b) by more shares in the same investment when the amount is economic
c) by shares in a different company.
a) seems unrealistic in that I've always bought shares when cash is accumulated
b) I will rule out unless at or near the time the cash accrued becomes economic, the existing company was subject to a re-investment in my real life HYP
c) seems acceptable as a solution if b) does not work. The danger is that it would become messy to operate with small numbers of several company shares, creating more work in the process.
There's also a bigger question looming: should I do this as an exercise on the basis of one holding sold at a time, or as a portfolio which includes all those shares sold? In the first selling case which occurs (RTO), I could, for example, simply run the clock forward for the holding of Rentokil, or alternatively for RTO plus RBS plus DSGI etc.
It does not seem so easy - which is why I've put it off for so long!
Any ideas from those of you who have done this previously?
Arb.