bystanding

[didds]

my query is a theoretical one, prompted by watching the Icelandic crime drama "Trapped".

In English Law...

If person A sees that person B is in a perilous situation that will lead to B's death (A has not caused this) but does nothing to prevent the situation coming to its grisly end - has A broken any law?

If the perilous situation is in fact a murderous act (perpetrated by person Z, now fled the scene) does that change anything?

If A and B are married, and A is happy that B is to die - does that change anything?


FYI etc - In the crime drama, B is in his shed, when Z knocks him out, sprays the shed with kerosene (or whatever accelerant) and sets fire to it, then padlocks the door closed behind him, locking B in the shed. A then sees the shed alight and knows B is in there - sees him though a window (plot hole ?!?) even. But does nothing to prevent the fire from burning B to death whatsoever.

Merely... curious...

didds

[pochisoldi]

The first answer to all "off the top of my head" questions can be found at Wikipedia so here goes :-
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Duty_to_rescue

[didds]

cheers pochisoldi

and now I know the "legally technical" term for it too

didds