Glencore Distributions UK Tax Treatment
Posted: June 23rd, 2018, 4:42 pm
Looking over my Hargreaves Lansdown statement I’ve noted that Glencore’s May 2018 “dividend” is classified as Return of Capital. The Glencore website is vague on the tax treatment and states that the company makes two distributions a year out of the “capital contribution reserves of the Company” which are not subject to Swiss WHT. There is no B-share scheme or share consolidation.
As UK tax payer I’m assuming I’ll have to pay some form of tax on these distributions. The “return of capital” descriptions indicates that this can be treated as a capital gain rather than income.
My initial thought is that the distribution reduces the base cost of my Glencore holding: if my purchase price was 200p, the May 2018 distribution was 7.35p, my new base cost will be adjusted to 192.65p. Assuming I don’t sell any Glencore shares, no tax is payable in the 2018/19 tax year. However, when I do sell the shares at say 350p, then my capital gain in that tax year will be 157.35p (rather than a 150p gain, using the 200p price on my original contract note). The distributions are effectively rolled up and become taxable when I make a sale of shares.
Does anyone have any views / evidence about how HMRC treats these distributions?
Thanks
As UK tax payer I’m assuming I’ll have to pay some form of tax on these distributions. The “return of capital” descriptions indicates that this can be treated as a capital gain rather than income.
My initial thought is that the distribution reduces the base cost of my Glencore holding: if my purchase price was 200p, the May 2018 distribution was 7.35p, my new base cost will be adjusted to 192.65p. Assuming I don’t sell any Glencore shares, no tax is payable in the 2018/19 tax year. However, when I do sell the shares at say 350p, then my capital gain in that tax year will be 157.35p (rather than a 150p gain, using the 200p price on my original contract note). The distributions are effectively rolled up and become taxable when I make a sale of shares.
Does anyone have any views / evidence about how HMRC treats these distributions?
Thanks