The Lemon Fool

I dont think this is a question for the legal board as its not practical! Its also a bit too specific for the history board.

Going through some unknown documents - I like genealogy - it looks as if ancestors benefited from a will from a relative who had died some fifty years earlier. Is this possible?

Could the will of the person who died in 1870's be used to distribute money in the 1920s that would have been left to them at a much later stage?

TIA

pancake101 wrote:Could the will of the person who died in 1870's be used to distribute money in the 1920s that would have been left to them at a much later stage?

Perhaps there had been a Trust set up which contained provisions to last a generation? Suppose you had a widow in say her 40s who had been left money by her husband in a Trust for her lifetime to provide income, which was to be distributed to her children on her death. My grandmother had something like that set up, but that ran only for about twenty years and wasn't wound up until about five or six years after her death.

Ah, perhaps thats it!

I had a thought and looked up the probate entry. She had still been married and the probate was granted under 'certain limitations to ...............
(names 2 persons, neither her husband) the legatees in trust' .

The couple had no children and her husband died ten years after her.

What are the implications there ? Had she money/land/ property in her own right or may this have been given to her through her marriage? Is the trust open ended ?